Posted: Mon Oct 26, 2020 10:06am
I'm not 100% sure how this all works but we're in a similar situation having purchased in February this year.
Our meatball/albondigas/solicitor advised us that the previous owner (the person who owns the property on the 1st of January) is liable for the entire year; but payment is made in two installments being (I think) March and July. My understanding is that this payment is for the current year, not the previous year.
They also told us that a direct debit could not be set up for the first payment that a new occupant makes (🤷🏽♂️) but having paid for the first year in the good ol' fashioned way subsequent payments can be made by direct debit.
I am rather hoping that someone with more information might respond to this either to correct or clarify or, indeed, confirm as I need to get my head around this for next year. However given that your situation is 12 months ahead of mine I might be inclined to assume that I owe them for 2020 if not for 2019 (which is a possibility, given that the previous owner might not have paid all or any of their obligations)
I hope that this post isn't taken in a presumptuous way by any of the previous posters, I don't claim to know best, but I have been advised different.
Best Wishes to One and All
Jimbo 😎